In part 2 of John Owen's On Communion with God, the point of departure and then the place of exposition for describing communion with the Son is the Song of Songs. I said in an earlier post that I wanted to come back to this and give some of my thoughts on the propriety of this approach, knowing full well what most today think of this. I do believe that the Song of Songs is fundamentally human love poetry. It is about married love, conjugal love, between a man and a woman. No doubt about it. And yet. . . .
Owen says this of the Song of Songs: "In brief, this whole book is taken up in the description of the communion that is present between the Lord Christ and his saints." Who would agree with this today? But is there any sense in which this is true, even if we assert (as I believe we must) that the Song of Songs is love poetry expressing union and communion between a man and a woman in the context of a marriage covenant?
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